**you can also download a printable (PDF) copy of the questions with their answers**, separated into Set A (containing the first questions) and Set B (containing the second questions).

Good luck with your exams!

1. What is 365,412 rounded to the nearest thousand?

a. 360,000

b. 370,000

c. 365,000

d. 366,000

2. What is 828,522 rounded to the nearest thousand?

a. 828,000

b. 829,000

c. 830,000

d. 828,500

3. Write “thirty-three billion, thirty thousand, thirty” in numerical form.

a. 33,030,030

b. 30,030,030,030

c. 33,000,030,030

d. 33,003,000,030

4. Write “seventy-one billion, one hundred million, eight thousand, one hundred eight” in numerical form.

a. 71,100,008,108

b. 71,001,008,108

c. 71,108,000,108

d. 71,000,108,108

5. There are 78 boys and 91 girls in the freshman class at St. Matthew’s Academy, 66 boys and 99 girls in the sophomore class, 70 boys and 102 girls in the junior class, and 80 boys and 88 girls in the senior class. What is the total enrollment?

a. 654

b. 664

c. 674

d. 647

6. There are 280 students and 8 teachers in the freshman class at St. Andrew’s Academy, 209 students and 6 teachers in the sophomore class, 176 students and 5 teachers in the junior class, and 140 students and 4 teachers in the senior class. What is the total student population?

a. 828

b. 829

c. 795

d. 805

7. An elementary school library has 2,519 fiction books, 1,674 non-fiction books, 545 reference books, and 115 magazines. What is the total number of reading materials in the library?

a. 4,753

b. 4,853

c. 4,863

d. 4,763

8. A college library has 3,908 fiction books, 4,095 non-fiction books, 512 reference books, and 255 magazines. What is the total number of reading materials in the library?

a. 8,560

b. 8,670

c. 8,760

d. 8,770

9. Father asked Liam to check the electric bill. If the previous month’s reading of the electric meter was 15,195 kw-hour and the present reading is 15,411 kw-hour, how many kilowatt hours of electricity were used during the month?

a. 206

b. 216

c. 226

d. 236

10. Mother asked Aldo to check the electric bill. If the previous month’s reading of the electric meter was 9,799 kw-hour and the present reading is 10,001 kw-hour, how many kilowatt hours of electricity were used during the month?

a. 192

b. 202

c. 212

d. 222

11. Ella’s average reading rate is 236 words per minute. How many words can she read in a quarter of an hour?

a. 59

b. 944

c. 1,180

d. 3,540

12. Nina’s average reading rate is 242 words per minute. How many words can she read in half an hour?

a. 60.5

b. 120

c. 3,630

d. 7,260

13. A class with 35 pupils had 1 absentee on Monday, 2 on Tuesday, 3 on Wednesday, 1 on Thursday, and 3 on Friday. Find the average daily attendance for the week.

a. 2

b. 31

c. 32

d. 33

14. A class with 40 pupils had 1 absentee on Monday, 2 on Tuesday, 3 on Wednesday, 1 on Thursday, and 3 on Friday. Find the average daily attendance for the week.

a. 38

b. 38.5

c. 39

d. 39.5

15. In 14 basketball games, Peter scored 97 field goals (2 points each), 30 free throws (1 point each), and 14 three-point shots. What is his average points per game?

a. 10

b. 17

c. 19

d. 21

16. In 10 basketball games, Kal scored 72 field goals (2 points each), 22 free throws (1 point each), and 8 three-point shots. What is his average points per game?

a. 10.2

b. 11.8

c. 17.4

d. 19

17. The total enrollment in the 4 freshman sections at Gabriela Silang National High School is 140 students; in 4 sophomore sections, 135 students; in 4 junior sections, 130 students; and in 3 senior sections, 105 students. What is the average student enrollment per section for the entire school?

a. 34

b. 35

c. 119

d. 128

18. The total enrollment in the 6 freshman sections at Gabriela Silang National High School is 300 students; in 6 sophomore sections, 276 students; in 5 junior sections, 253 students; and in 5 senior sections, 249 students. What is the average student enrollment per section for the entire school?

a. 45

b. 49

c. 50

d. 54

19. San Agustin Appliance Store purchased the following last month: 5 washing machines at ₱22,995 each; 3 air conditioners at ₱49,000 each; 4 television sets at ₱45,590 each; and 8 vacuum cleaners at ₱11,995 each. What was the total cost of the merchandise?

a. 540,295

b. 540,300

c. 540,395

d. 540,405

20. Community Central Appliance Store purchased the following last month: 5 refrigerators at ₱21,635 each; 5 washing machines at ₱22,995 each; 3 air conditioners at ₱49,000 each; and 8 vacuum cleaners at ₱11,995 each. What was the total cost of the merchandise?

a. 466,100

b. 466,110

c. 466,210

d. 466,300

21. A school placed an order for 450 umbrellas, of which ½ were blue, ⅓ were red, and the rest were green. How many green umbrellas were ordered?

a. 75

b. 150

c. 225

d. 300

22. A school placed an order for 600 umbrellas, of which ⅓ were blue, ⅖ were brown, and the rest were black. How many black umbrellas were ordered?

a. 120

b. 160

c. 200

d. 240

23. If ⅚ of a number is 75, then 66⅔ % of the same number is:

a. 20

b. 40

c. 60

d. 80

24. If ⅚ of a number is 30, then 66⅔ % of the same number is:

a. 15

b. 24

c. 33

d. 36

25. Given that: A = 12 ÷ 4 – 3; B = (8 – 4) – 2; and C = 4 – 3 x 2. Which of the following equations is true?

a. A = B + C

b. A = B – C

c. A = B x C

d. C = A + B

26. Given that: A = 22 ÷ 2 – 11; B = (11 – 4) – 5; and C = 10 – 3 x 4. Which of the following equations is true?

a. A = B + C

b. A = B – C

c. A = B x C

d. C = A + B

27. Given that: A = 2^{3} x 2; B = 3 + 6 ÷ 3; C = 10 – (8 – 2). Which of the following equations is true?

a. A < C

b. A = C^{2}

c. A = B + C

d. A = B^{2} + C

28. Given that: A = 5^{2} – 3^{2}; B = 4 + 2 ÷ 2; C = 20 – (17 – 1). Which of the following equations is true?

a. A < C

b. A = C^{2}

c. A = B + C

d. A = B^{2} + C

29. Find the number of days from June 16 to July 15.

a. 28

b. 29

c. 30

d. 31

30. Find the number of days from August 15 to November 16.

a. 91

b. 92

c. 93

d. 94

31. Of the fractions ½, ⅔, 3/6, and 3/7, the largest one is:

a. ½

b. ⅔

c. 3/6

d. 3/7

32. Of the fractions 4/7, 5/11, 9/19, and 11 ⅔, the largest one is:

a. 4/7

b. 5/11

c. 9/19

d. 11 ⅔

33. To find how much bigger one number is than another, the operation we use is:

a. Addition

b. Subtraction

c. Multiplication

d. Division

34. To find how much bigger one number is than another we:

a. Find the sum

b. Find the difference

c. Find the product

d. Find the quotient

35. The short-cut method of multiplying 327 by 25 is to annex two zeroes to 327 and

a. Divide by 4

b. Divide by 25

c. Add 25

d. Multiply by 4

36. The short-cut method of multiplying 164 by 25 is to annex two zeroes to 164 and

a. Add 25

b. Divide by 4

c. Divide by 25

d. Multiply by 4

37. To change ⅘ to decimals, we

a. Divide 5 by 4

b. Divide 4 by 5

c. Multiply 4 by 5

d. Subtract 4 by 5

38. To change 2/10 to decimals, we

a. Divide 10 by 2

b. Divide 2 by 10

c. Multiply 2 by 10

d. Subtract 2 by 10

39. When the product of 3, 4, and 5 is divided by their sum, the result is

a. 3

b. 4

c. 5

d. 12

40. When the product of 6, 7, and 8 is divided by their sum, the result is

a. 5

b. 8

c. 13

d. 16

41. The average of the numbers 4, 7, 10, 13, 16 is equal to

a. Their common difference

b. The middle number

c. Their product

d. Their sum

42. The average of the numbers 13, 19, 25, 31, 37 is equal to

a. Their sum

b. Their product

c. The middle number

d. Their common difference

43. The smallest number that can be divided by 2, 4, 7, and 12 without leaving a remainder is

a. 56

b. 72

c. 84

d. 672

44. The smallest number that can be divided by 4, 7, 8, and 21, without leaving a remainder is

a. 56

b. 84

c. 126

d. 168

45. If it takes Eunice 3 hours and 50 minutes to complete a third of a job, how long will it take her to complete the whole job?

a. 1 hour and 16⅔ minutes

b. 8 hours and 30 minutes

c. 9 hours and 50 minutes

d. 11 hours and 30 minutes

46. If it takes Allan 3 hours and 45 minutes to complete a fifth of a job, how long will it take him to complete the whole job?

a. 45 minutes

b. 11 hours and 15 minutes

c. 16 hours and 15 minutes

d. 18 hours and 45 minutes

47. When 1 is divided by a positive fraction less than ⅓, the result is

a. ⅓

b. Less than ⅓

c. Less than 3

d. Greater than 3

48. When 1 is divided by a positive fraction less than ¼ , the result is

a. ¼

b. Less than ¼

c. Less than 4

d. Greater than 4

49. On a Math test, 80% of the members of a class had passing grades. Of these, 75% had the minimum passing grade. What percent of the class had the minimum passing grade?

a. 20%

b. 40%

c. 60%

d. 80%

50. On a Math test, 75% of the members of a class had passing grades. Of these, 20% had the minimum passing grade. What percent of the class had the minimum passing grade?

a. 15%

b. 20%

c. 25%

d. 30%

51. Two hundred eighty-four students are to be assigned to 7 classes such that, as much as possible, the classes will be of the same size. The result will be that

a. No class will have more than 40 students

b. All classes will be of the same size

c. Four classes will be larger than the others

d. Two classes will be smaller than the others

52. Three hundred fifty-seven students are to be assigned to 10 classes such that, as much as possible, the classes will be of the same size. The result will be that

a. All classes will be of the same size

b. No class will have more than 35 students

c. Eight classes will be larger than the others

d. Three classes will be smaller than the others

53. Which one of the following statements is correct?

a. When an odd number is divided by an even number, there is always no remainder.

b. When an odd number is subtracted from an odd number, the result is always even.

c. When an odd number is multiplied by an odd number, the result is always even.

d. When an even number is added to an odd number, the result is always odd.

54. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

a. When an odd number is divided by an odd number, there is always a remainder.

b. When an odd number is subtracted from an odd number, the result is always even.

c. When an even number is multiplied by an odd number, the result is always even.

d. When an even number is added to an odd number, the result is always even.

55. An auditorium is ½ full. After 30 people in the audience left, the auditorium became ⅜ full. What is the seating capacity of the auditorium?

a. 125

b. 180

c. 200

d. 240

56. An auditorium is ¾ full. After 50 people in the audience left, the auditorium became ½ full. What is the seating capacity of the auditorium?

a. 125

b. 180

c. 200

d. 250

57. If the numerator of a fraction is doubled and its denominator is halved, the resulting fraction is equal to the original…

a. Multiplied by 4

b. Divided by 2

c. Multiplied by ¼

d. Multiplied by 2

58. If the numerator of a fraction is halved and its denominator is multiplied by ½, the resulting fraction is equal to the original…

a. Multiplied by 2

b. Divided by 2

c. Multiplied by ½

d. Multiplied by 1

59. Find the number of halves in ⅔.

a. ⅔

b. 3/2

c. 4/3

d. 2/6

60. Find the number of halves in ⅜.

a. 8/3

b. ¾

c. ⅓

d. 3/16

61. A mixture contains 6 liters of water and 3 liters of alcohol. If 6 more liters of water is added, what part of the mixture is alcohol?

a. ¼

b. ⅕

c. ⅗

d. ⅓

62. A mixture contains 12 liters of water and 3 liters of alcohol. If 3 more liters of water is added, what part of the mixture is alcohol?

a. ⅙

b. ⅕

c. ½

d. ⅚

63. What is the average of 23 consecutive integers?

a. The difference between the first and the last

b. The sum of the first and last

c. The 12th integer

d. Twice the first

64. What is the average of 37 consecutive integers?

a. Twice the first

b. The 19th integer

c. The sum of the first and last

d. The difference between the first and the last

65. A number in which the sum of the digits exceeds the tens digit by 7 is

a. 767

b. 168

c. 384

d. 689

66. A number in which the sum of the digits exceeds the hundreds digit by 13 is

a. 767

b. 168

c. 384

d. 689

67. A plane travels at a speed of 640 kph. How many kilometers does the plane cover in 45 minutes?

a. 480 km

b. 540 km

c. 420 km

d. 600 km

68. A plane travels at a speed of 860 kph. How many kilometers does the plane cover in 1 hour and 15 minutes?

a. 688 km

b. 747.8 km

c. 989 km

d. 1,075 km

69. Italy’s Frecciarossa train travels at a speed of 300 kph. How many kilometers can it cover in 1 hour and 45 minutes?

a. 345 km

b. 435 km

c. 525 km

d. 540 km

70. Japan’s Maglev train travels at a speed of 600 kph. How many kilometers can it cover in 45 minutes?

a. 270 km

b. 450 km

c. 540 km

d. 585 km

71. The average of two fractions is ⅜. One of the fractions is ¼. Find the other fraction.

a. ½

b. ¾

c. 2/8

d. ⅛

72. The average of two fractions is 5/12. One of the fractions is ½. Find the other fraction.

a. ⅚

b. ⅓

c. ¾

d. ⅙

73. The ratio between the difference of 27 and 18, and their sum is

a. 1:5

b. 1:9

c. 5:1

d. 2:3

74. The ratio between the sum of 28 and 42, and their difference is

a. 1:5

b. 1:9

c. 5:1

d. 2:3

75. At 9 am, the shadow of a house is 6 meters. At the same time the shadow of a 10-meter-tall tree is 7 meters and 50 centimeters. Find the height of the building.

a. 6.75 meters

b. 8 meters

c. 9 meters

d. 9.5 meters

76. At 1 pm, the shadow of a building is 12 meters. At the same time the shadow of a 10-foot-tall tree is 3 feet, 4 inches. Find the height of the building.

a. 15 meters

b. 18 meters

c. 24 meters

d. 36 meters

77. The ratio of 2 yards to 2 feet is:

a. 12:1

b. 8:2

c. 4:1

d. 3:1

78. The ratio of 4 yards to 3 feet is:

a. 12:1

b. 8:2

c. 4:1

d. 3:1

79. The ratio of 6 inches to 6 ft is:

a. 1:1

b. 1:9

c. 1:12

d. 1:18

80. The ratio of 10 inches to 4¼ ft is:

a. 5:4

b. 5:26

c. 4:5

d. 10:51

81. The ratio used in making the scale drawing of a machine part is 1:24. The length of the part is 12 feet. The number of inches required to show this length is:

a. 5 inches

b. 6 inches

c. 2½ inches

d. 3 inches

82. The ratio used in making the scale drawing of a machine part is 1:24. The length of the part is 10 feet. The number of inches required to show this length is:

a. 5 inches

b. 6 inches

c. 2½ inches

d. 3 inches

83. A tank is 21 inches long, 10 inches wide, and 11 inches high. If one gallon contains 231 cu. inches, find the number of gallons the tank can hold.

a. 5

b. 10

c. 12

d. 31

84. A tank is 31 inches long, 21 inches wide, and 11 inches high. If one gallon contains 231 cu. inches, find the number of gallons the tank can hold.

a. 5

b. 10

c. 12

d. 31

85. A train was scheduled to arrive at 12:25 PM but was 50 minutes late. The train will arrive at:

a. 11:35 AM

b. 11:35 PM

c. 1:15 AM

d. 1:15 PM

86. A train was scheduled to arrive at 11:25 PM but was 40 minutes late. The train will arrive at:

a. 10:45 AM

b. 10:45 PM

c. 12:05 AM

d. 12:05 PM

87. Vincent gets up at 5:15 AM every morning. At what time must he go to sleep if he is to get 8½ hours of sleep?

a. 7:45 PM

b. 8:45 PM

c. 9:45 PM

d. 10:45 PM

88. Vincent gets up at 7:15 AM every morning. At what time must he go to sleep if he is to get 8½ hours of sleep?

a. 7:45 PM

b. 8:45 PM

c. 9:45 PM

d. 10:45 PM

89. If the product of four integers is negative, then, at most, how many of the four integers could be negative?

a. One

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four

90. If the product of seven integers is negative, then, at most, how many of the seven integers could be negative?

a. One

b. Three

c. Five

d. Seven

91. If 10 parts of alcohol are mixed with 15 parts of water, what part of the mixture is alcohol?

a. ⅔

b. ¼

c. ⅖

d. ⅗

92. If 6 parts of alcohol are mixed with 14 parts of water, what part of the mixture is alcohol?

a. 3/7

b. 2/7

c. 3/10

d. ⅔

93. Which of the following fractions is closest to ⅕?

a. ⅗

b. ¾

c. 3/20

d. 7/20

94. Which of the following fractions is closest to ¼?

a. ⅕

b. ¾

c. 3/20

d. 7/20

95. What part of a gallon is 4 pints? (2 pints = 1 quart; 4 quarts = 1 gallon)

a. ½

b. 2/6

c. ⅔

d. ⅞

96. What part of a gallon is 7 pints? (2 pints = 1 quart; 4 quarts = 1 gallon)

a. ⅙

b. ⅔

c. ⅞

d. 3/2

97. If (x – 4) + 4 = 6, what is the value of x?

a. 2

b. 4

c. 6

d. 8

98. If (x – 4) x 2 = 4, what is the value of x?

a. 2

b. 6

c. 8

d. 12

99. Which of the following numbers has the digit 8 in the tenths place?

a. 0.008

b. 0.080

c. 0.800

d. 80.00

100. Which of the following numbers has the digit 4 in the hundredths place?

a. 0.004

b. 0.040

c. 0.400

d. 400.0

101. If 3x + y = 5, what is the value of 6x + 2y?

a. 6

b. 9

c. 10

d. 15

102. If 2x + y = 5, what is the value of 6x + 3y?

a. 6

b. 9

c. 10

d. 15

103. Cami and Mark each bought some pens and an eraser. Cami paid ₱13 for 3 pens and 1 eraser. Mark paid ₱9 for 2 pens and 1 eraser. They bought the same kind of pens and erasers. What is the price of one pen?

a. ₱4.00

b. ₱4.50

c. ₱6.00

d. ₱7.50

104. Dee and Sara each bought some pens and an eraser. Dee paid ₱18.50 for 3 pens and 1 eraser. Sara paid ₱12.50 for 2 pens and 1 eraser. They bought the same kind of pens and erasers. What is the price of one pen?

a. ₱4.00

b. ₱4.50

c. ₱6.00

d. ₱7.50

105. Ten kilograms is approximately equal to how many pounds? (1 kg ≈ 2.2 lbs)

a. 0.22

b. 22

c. 4.55

d. 12.2

106. Fifteen kilograms is approximately equal to how many pounds? (1 kg ≈ 2.2 lbs)

a. 3

b. 30

c. 33

d. 6.8

107. The distance between two cities in the Philippines is 8 kilometers. What is the approximate distance in miles? (1.6 km ≈ 1 mile)

a. 0.2

b. 5

c. 8

d. 12

108. The distance between two cities in the Philippines is 5 miles. What is the approximate distance in kilometers? (1.6 km ≈ 1 mile)

a. 0.2

b. 5

c. 8

d. 12

109. Four gallons of milk is equal to how many quarts? (1 liter ≈ 1.1 quart; 4 quarts ≈ 1 gallon)

a. 12

b. 16

c. 40

d. 48

110. Eleven gallons of water is equal to approximately how many liters? (1 liter ≈ 1.1 quart; 4 quarts ≈ 1 gallon)

a. 12

b. 16

c. 40

d. 48

111. Two hundred centimeters is approximately equal to _____. (2.54 cm ≈ 1 inch; 1 yard ≈ 36 inches)

a. Ten miles

b. Three feet

c. Over 2 yards

d. Nearly 500 inches

112. One hundred fifty centimeters is approximately equal to _____. (2.54 cm ≈ 1 inch; 12 inches = 1 foot)

a. 6 inches

b. 60 feet

c. Just over 30 inches

d. Nearly 5 feet

113. If a tree is 2 meters tall, what is its approximate height in feet?

a. 6

b. 6.5

c. 7

d. 7.5

114. If a man is 1.75 meters tall, what is his approximate height in feet?

a. 5

b. 5¾

c. 6

d. 6¼

115. The approximate equivalent of 2 pounds in grams is:

a. 900

b. 100

c. 50

d. 220

116. The approximate equivalent of 100 grams in pounds is:

a. 22

b. 2.2

c. 0.22

d. 0.45

117. Ten millimeters is equal to:

a. 100 centimeters

b. 1/100 of a centimeter

c. 1/100 of a meter

d. 1/100 of a kilometer

118. Two millimeters is equal to:

a. 20 centimeters

b. 2/10 of a centimeter

c. 2/100 of a meter

d. 2/100 of a kilometer

119. One milligram is equal to:

a. 1/1000 of a kilogram

b. 1/1000 of a gram

c. 1000 grams

d. 10 centigrams

120. Ten milliliters (mL) is equal to:

a. 1/1000 of a deciliter (dL)

b. 1/1000 of a kiloliter (kL)

c. 1/1000 of a liter (L)

d. 1/100 of a liter (L)

121. The sum of two whole numbers is 5 and their difference is 3. What is their product?

a. 4

b. 6

c. 8

d. 10

122. The sum of two numbers is 1 and their difference is ½. What is their product?

a. 3/2

b. ¾

c. ⅜

d. 3/16

123. The teeth of two circular gears interlock when they turn. Gear A has 12 teeth and gear B has 20 teeth. How many complete revolutions does Gear A make when Gear B makes 6 complete revolutions?

a. 6

b. 8

c. 10

d. 12

124. The teeth of two circular gears interlock when they turn. Gear A has 30 teeth and gear B has 16 teeth. How many complete revolutions will Gear A have already made by the time Gear B makes 10 complete revolutions?

a. 5

b. 10

c. 15

d. 30

125. If the perimeter of a rectangle is 6 times the width of the rectangle, then the length of the rectangle is how many times the width?

a. 2

b. 4

c. 5

d. 6

126. If the perimeter of a rectangle is 12 times the width of the rectangle, then the length of the rectangle is how many times the width?

a. 2

b. 4

c. 5

d. 6

127. In a pentagon, what is the sum of the five angles divided by the average of the five angles?

a. 4

b. 5

c. 6

d. 8

128. In an octagon, what is the sum of the eight angles divided by the average of the eight angles?

a. 4

b. 5

c. 6

d. 8

129. There are 120 yellow balls and 80 black balls in a bag that currently contains 200 balls. If only black balls are to be added to the bag so that the probability of randomly drawing a black ball from the bag becomes ½, how many black balls must be added to the bag?

a. 40

b. 80

c. 100

d. 120

130. There are 120 yellow balls and 80 black balls in a bag that currently contains 200 balls. If only black balls are to be added to the bag so that the probability of randomly drawing a black ball from the bag becomes ⅗, how many black balls must be added to the bag?

a. 40

b. 80

c. 100

d. 120

131. In the repeating decimal 0.123123123…, where the digits 1,2,3 repeat, which digit is in the 300th place to the right of the decimal point?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. Cannot be determined

132. In the repeating decimal 0.12341234…, where the digits 1,2,3,4 repeat, which digit is in the 8000th place to the right of the decimal point?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 3

d. 4

133. Alice can jog at the rate of 10,560 feet in 30 minutes. What is her speed in miles per hour (mph)? (5,280 feet = 1 mile)

a. 2 mph

b. 4 mph

c. 6 mph

d. 8 mph

134. Alan runs at the rate of 7,040 feet in 10 minutes. What is his speed in miles per hour (mph)? (5,280 feet = 1 mile)

a. 2 mph

b. 4 mph

c. 6 mph

d. 8 mph

135. A box contains 2 pounds of chocolate chip cookies. If each cookie weighs 1.6 ounces, how many cookies are there in the box? (16 oz = 1 lb)

a. 12

b. 16

c. 20

d. 24

136. A box contains 5.25 pounds of chocolate chip cookies. If each cookie weighs 1.75 ounces, how many cookies are there in the box? (16 oz = 1 lb)

a. 1 dozen

b. 2 dozen

c. 3 dozen

d. 4 dozen

137. On a bar graph, the scale is 1 box = 400 people. The number of boxes needed to represent 1,000 people is:

a. 2½

b. 3

c. 3½

d. 4

138. On a bar graph, the scale is 1 box = 500 people. The number of boxes needed to represent 1,750 people is:

a. 2½

b. 3

c. 3½

d. 4

139. On a bar graph, it is necessary to represent the following: 8050; 10000; 2,002; 12040; 6051; 4010. The best scale to use is 1 box = _____.

a. 10

b. 20

c. 200

d. 2,000

140. On a bar graph, it is necessary to represent the following: 100, 500, 800, 900, 1500, 1800. The best scale to use is 1 box = _____.

a. 10

b. 200

c. 1,000

d. 2,000

141. On a line graph, five intervals represent the number 1250. The scale on this graph is 1 interval = _____.

a. 125

b. 200

c. 250

d. 300

142. On a line graph, three intervals represent the number 600. The scale on this graph is 1 interval = _____.

a. 125

b. 200

c. 250

d. 300

143. In how many ways can you arrange 4 different objects in a single line?

a. 4

b. 16

c. 20

d. 24

144. In how many ways can you arrange 5 different objects in a single line?

a. 25

b. 50

c. 120

d. 125

145. Using the digits 1, 2, 3, how many different three-digit numbers can be formed if the digits may be repeated any number of times in a number?

a. 3

b. 6

c. 12

d. 27

146. Using the digits 1, 2, 3, 4, how many different four-digit numbers can be formed if repetition is allowed?

a. 24

b. 96

c. 256

d. 4!

147. How many straight lines can be formed by connecting any 2 of 5 non-collinear points?

a. 3

b. 5

c. 10

d. 15

148. How many straight lines can be formed by connecting any 2 of 8 non-collinear points?

a. 16

b. 28

c. 56

d. 160

149. How many triangles can be formed from the vertices of a regular hexagon?

a. 10

b. 15

c. 20

d. 30

150. How many triangles can be formed from the vertices of a regular pentagon?

a. 10

b. 15

c. 20

d. 30

151. Each of three vases contains 10 flowers. Some flowers are to be removed from one vase and placed in another vase to make the ratio of flowers in the three vases 1:6:8. What is the least number of flowers that need to be moved to accomplish this?

a. 6

b. 8

c. 15

d. 16

152. Each of four vases contains 20 flowers. Some flowers are to be removed from one vase and placed in another vase to make the ratio of flowers in the four vases 1:2:3:4. What is the least number of flowers that need to be moved to accomplish this?

a. 8

b. 12

c. 16

d. 24

153. There are 32 blue marbles and 18 red marbles in a bag. If only blue marbles are added, how many blue marbles must be added so that the probability of randomly drawing a blue marble becomes ¾?

a. 8

b. 14

c. 22

d. 30

154. There are 12 red marbles and 6 blue marbles in a bag. If only blue marbles are added, how many blue marbles must be added so that the probability of randomly drawing a red marble becomes ¼?

a. 8

b. 14

c. 22

d. 30

155. Maya has 20 meters of fencing to create a rectangular vegetable garden. If the width of the garden will be 2 meters, what is the maximum length she can create for the garden?

a. 8 meters

b. 9 meters

c. 10 meters

d. 12 meters

156. Leila has 30 meters of fencing to create a rectangular vegetable garden. If the width of the garden will be 3 meters, what is the maximum length she can create for the garden?

a. 8 meters

b. 9 meters

c. 10 meters

d. 12 meters

157. A bakery needs 2 cups of flour for every batch of cookies. If they already have 8 cups of flour and need enough for 12 batches, how many more cups of flour do they need to buy?

a. 4 cups

b. 8 cups

c. 12 cups

d. 16 cups

158. A bakery needs 2 cups of flour for every batch of cookies. If they have 20 cups of flour on hand and use enough flour for 6 batches, how many more cups of flour will they have left over?

a. 4 cups

b. 8 cups

c. 12 cups

d. 16 cups

159. A rectangular garden has a width of 8 meters and a length that is 4 meters longer than twice the width. What is the perimeter of the garden in meters?

a. 24 m

b. 40 m

c. 56 m

d. 64 m

160. A rectangular garden has a width of 8 meters and a length that is 4 meters less than twice the width. What is the perimeter of the garden in meters?

a. 24 m

b. 40 m

c. 56 m

d. 64 m

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